FAA Knowledge Test – Private Pilot

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1. Airplanes and Aerodynamics

• https://quizlet.com/524723334/chapter-2-flash-cards/

1.1 Flight Controls

1.8 Stability

• A stable airplane will tend to return to the original condition of flight if disturbed by a force such as turbulent air. This means that a stable airplane is easy to fly. (PLT213) – FAA-H-8083-25
• The location of the center of gravity with respect to the center of lift determines to a great extent the longitudinal stability of an airplane. Center of gravity aft of the center of lift will result in an undesirable pitch-up moment during flight. An airplane with the center of gravity forward of the center of lift will pitch down when power is reduced. This will increase the airspeed and the downward force on the elevators. This increased downward force on the elevators will bring the nose up, providing positive stability. The farther forward the CG is, the more stable the airplane. (PLT213) – FAA-H-8083-25
• Loading in a tail-heavy condition can reduce the airplane’s ability to recover from stalls and spins. Tail-heavy loading also produces very light stick forces, making it easy for the pilot to inadvertently overstress the airplane. (PLT003) – FAA-H-8083-25

1.4 Turns, Loads, and Load Factors

• As the airplane is banked, lift acts horizontally as well as vertically and the airplane is pulled around the turn. (PLT242) – FAA-H-8083-3The force that makes an airplane turn is the horizontal component of lift.
• Stall speed increases in proportion to the square root of the load factor. Thus, with a load factor of 4, an aircraft will stall at a speed which is double the normal stall speed. (PLT312) – FAA-H-8083-25

1.5 Maneuvers

• The four flight fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft are: straight-and-level flights, turns, climbs, and descents. (PLT219) – Faa-H-8083-3

1.6 Stalls and Spins

1.7 Flaps

1.8 Ground Effect

1.9 Wake Turbulence

2. Airplane Instruments, Engines, and Systems

2.1 COMPASS TURNING ERROR

2.2 PITOT-STATIC SYSTEM

3. Airports, Air Traffic Control, and Airspace

3.1.1 RUNWAY MARKINGS

1. The number at the start of each runway indicates its magnetic alignment divided by 10°; e.g.,
   1. Runway 26 indicates 260° magnetic; Runway 9 indicates 090° magnetic.
2. Runways are numbered by the direction in which they point.
   A displaced threshold is a threshold (marked as a broad solid line across the runway) that is not at the beginning of the full strength runway pavement. The remainder of the runway, following the displaced threshold, is the landing portion of the runway.
   1. The paved area before the displaced threshold (marked by arrows) is available for taxiing, the landing rollout, and takeoff of aircraft.
3. Chevrons mark any surface or area extending beyond the usable runway that appears usable but that, due to the nature of its structure, is unusable runway.
   1. This area is not available for any use, not even taxiing.
4. Closed runways are marked by an “X” on each runway end that is closed.
5. Runway holding position markings indicate where an aircraft is supposed to stop. They consist of four yellow lines, two continuous and two dashed, extending across the width of the taxiway or runway. The solid (continuous) lines are always on the side where the aircraft is to hold.
   

3.1.2 TAXIWAY AND DESTINATION SIGNS

1. Destination signs have black characters on a yellow background with an arrow showing the direction of the taxiing route to the destination listed. Outbound destinations commonly show directions to the take-off runways.
   1. Examples of destination signs are shown in Figure 65 below.
      1. They are signs I, J, and K.
      2. In that figure, Sign K designates the direction of taxiway bravo.
2. Taxiway location signs identify the taxiway on which an aircraft is currently located.
   1. Location signs feature a black background with yellow lettering and do not have directional arrows.
3. Taxiway directional signs indicate the designation and direction of a taxiway.
   1. When turning from one taxiway to another, a taxiway directional sign indicates the designation and direction of a taxiway leading out of the intersection.
   2. Taxiway directional signs feature a yellow background with black lettering and directional arrows.
4. When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with continuous lines, the pilot should not cross the lines without an ATC clearance.
   1. Taxiway holding lines are painted across the width of the taxiway and are yellow.
5. A runway holding position sign is a mandatory instruction sign with white characters on a red background. It is located at the holding position on taxiways that intersect a runway or on runways that intersect other runways.
6. Each of the letters below corresponds to the type of sign or marking in the figure below:
   1. Runway Holding Position Sign
   2. Holding Position Sign for a Runway Approach Area
   3. Holding Position Sign for ILS Critical Area
   4. Sign Prohibiting Aircraft Entry into an Area
   5. Taxiway Location Sign
   6. Runway Location Sign
   7. Runway Boundary Sign
   8. ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign
   9. Direction Sign for Terminal
   10. Direction Sign for Common Taxiing Route to Runway
   11. Direction Sign for Runway Exit
   12. Runway Distance Remaining Sign
   13. Hold Short-1
   14. Taxiway Ending Sign
7. Vehicle Roadway Markings
   1. Vehicle roadway markings define pathways for vehicles to cross areas of the airport used by aircraft.
      1. Vehicle roadway markings exist in two forms, as shown by letter C in Figure 64 below.
         1. The edge of vehicle roadway markings may be defined by a solid white line or white zipper markings.
      2. A dashed white line separates opposite-direction vehicle traffic inside the roadway
8. Each of the letters above corresponds to the type of airport markings
   1. Holding Position Markings at Beginning of Takeoff Runway 19
   2. ILS Critical Area Boundary Marking
   3. Roadway Edge Stripes
   4. Runway Holding Position Marking
   5. Taxiway Holding Position Marker
   6. Taxiway Boundary
9. Yellow Demarcation Bar
   1. 1. The yellow demarcation bar is a 3-ft.-wide, painted yellow bar that separates a displaced threshold from a blast pad, stopway, or taxiway that precedes the runway.

3.1.3 BEACONS AND TAXIWAY LIGHTS

1. Operation of the green and white rotating beacon at an airport located in Class D airspace during the day indicates that the weather is not VFR; i.e.,
   1. The visibility is less than 3 SM or
   2. The ceiling is less than 1,000 feet.
2. A lighted heliport may be identified by a green, yellow, and white rotating beacon.
3. Military airports are indicated by beacons with two white flashes between each green flash.
4. Airport taxiways are lighted with blue edge lights.
5. To operate pilot-controlled lighting (PCL), you should first click the mic seven times, which turns everything on. For high-intensity lights, leave it alone. For medium-intensity lights, click it five times. For low-intensity lights, click it three times.

3.1.4 AIRPORT TRAFFIC PATTERNS

1. If you are approaching an airport without an operating control tower,
   1. Left turns are standard, unless otherwise specified.
   2. You must comply with any FAA traffic pattern for that airport when departing.
2. The recommended entry to an airport traffic pattern is 45° to the downwind leg, at the approximate midpoint, at traffic pattern altitude (1,000 ft. AGL).
3. Remember, you land
   1. In the same direction as the tip of the tetrahedron is pointing,
   2. As if you were flying out of the large (open) end of the wind cone, or
   3. Toward the cross-bar end of a wind “T” (visualize the “T” as an airplane with no nose, with the top of the “T” being the wings).
4. If there is no segmented circle installed at the airport, traffic pattern indicators may be installed on or near the end of the runway.
5. The segmented circle system provides traffic pattern information at airports without operating control towers. It consists of the
   1. Segmented circle – located in a position affording maximum visibility to pilots in the air and on the ground, it provides a centralized point for the other elements of the system
   2. Landing strip indicators – L shaped symbols that look like legs sticking out of the segmented circle. They are always in pairs, with each pair representing one runway.
      1. For each pair, the Ls are directly opposite each other.
         For each opposing pair of Ls, the long leg of the L represents the runway direction.
   3. Traffic pattern indicators – indicators at right angles to the landing strip indicator.
      1. For each opposing pair of Ls, the short leg of the L shows the direction of turn from base to final and upwind to crosswind.
      2. In Figure 49 below, Runways 22 and 36 use left traffic, while Runways 4 and 18 use right traffic.
      3. The “X” indicates that Runways 4 and 22 are closed.
      4. The area behind the displaced thresholds of Runways 18 and 36 (marked by arrows) can be used for taxiing and takeoff but not for landing.
   4. Wind direction indicator – a wind cone, wind sock, or wind tee installed near the runways to indicate wind direction
      1. The large end of the wind cone/wind sock points into the wind as does the large end (cross bar) of the wind tee.
   5. Landing direction indicator – a tetrahedron on a swivel installed when conditions at the airport warrant its use. It is used to indicate the direction of takeoffs and landings. It should be located at the center of a segmented circle and may be lighted for night operations.
      1. The small end points toward the direction in which a takeoff or landing should be made; i.e., the small end points into the wind.

3.1.5 VISUAL APPROACH SLOPE INDICATORS (VASI)

1. Visual approach slope indicators (VASI) are a system of lights to provide visual descent information during an approach to landing.
2. The standard VASI consists of a two-barred tier of lights. You are
   1. Below the glide path if both light bars are red; i.e., “red means dead.”
   2. On the glide path if the far (on top visually) lights are red and the near (on bottom visually) lights are white.
   3. Above the glide path if both light bars are white.
3. Remember, red over white (i.e., R before W alphabetically) is the desired sequence.
   1. White over red is impossible.
4. VASI only projects a glide path. It has no bearing on runway alignment.
5. On a precision approach path indicator (PAPI),
   1. Low is four red lights (less than 2.5°).
   2. Slightly low is one white and three reds (2.8°).
   3. On glide path is two whites and two reds (3.0°).
   4. Slightly high is three whites and one red (3.2°).
   5. High is four whites (more than 3.5°).
6. On a pulsating approach slope indicator (a VASI with flashing/pulsating signals),
   1. Low is a pulsating red.
   2. On glide path is a steady white or alternating red/white (depending on model).
   3. High is a pulsating white.
7. Each pilot of an airplane approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator shall maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for landing (14 CFR 91.129).

Glide Path	TWO BAR VASI	THREE BAR VASI	PRECISION APPROACH PATH INDICATOR (PAPI)	PULSATING VASI	TRI-COLOR VASI
High
Slightly High
On
Slightly Low
Low

3.1.6 WAKE TURBULENCE

1. Wingtip vortices (wake turbulence) are only created when airplanes develop lift.
2. The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow.
3. The circulation of the vortex is outward, upward, and around each wingtip.
4. Wingtip vortex turbulence tends to sink into the flight path of airplanes operating below the airplane generating the turbulence.
   1. Thus, you should fly above the flight path of a large jet rather than below.
   2. You should also fly upwind rather than downwind of the flight path, since the vortices will drift with the wind.
5. The most dangerous wind, when taking off or landing behind a heavy aircraft, is the light quartering tailwind. It will push the vortices into your touchdown zone, even if you are executing proper procedures.

3.1.7 COLLISION AVOIDANCE

1. Navigation lights on the aircraft consist of a red light on the left wing, a green light on the right wing, and a white light on the tail. In night flight,
   1. When an airplane is crossing in front of you from your right to left, you will observe a red light.
   2. When an airplane is crossing in front of you from your left to right, you will observe a green light.
   3. When an airplane is flying away from you, you will observe a steady white light(s).
   4. When an airplane is approaching you head-on, you will observe a red and green light but no white light.
   5. Note that the navigation lights on the wings cannot be seen from the rear.
2. A flashing red light on an aircraft is a rotating beacon and may be seen from any angle.
3. In daylight, the most effective way to scan for other aircraft is to use a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into your central visual field.
   1. Each movement should not exceed 10°, and each area should be observed for at least 1 second to enable detection.
   2. Only a very small center area of the eye has the ability to send clear, sharply focused messages to the brain.
4. At night, collision avoidance scanning must use the off-center portions of the eyes. These portions are most effective at seeing objects at night.
   1. Accordingly, peripheral vision should be used, scanning small sectors and using off-center viewing.
5. Any aircraft that appears to have no relative motion with respect to your aircraft and stays in one scan quadrant is likely to be on a collision course.
   1. If it increases in size, you should take immediate evasive action.
6. Prior to each maneuver, a pilot should visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.
   1. When climbing or descending VFR on an airway, you should execute gentle banks left and right to facilitate scanning for other aircraft.
7. All pilots are responsible for collision avoidance when operating in an alert area.
8. Most midair collision accidents occur during clear days.
   1. A near midair collision is defined as an incident associated with
      1. The operation of an aircraft in which a possibility of collision occurs as a result of proximity of less than 500 ft. to another aircraft or
      2. A report that is received from a pilot or a flight crew member stating that a collision hazard existed between two or more aircraft.
   2. Reporting responsibility: It is the responsibility of the pilot and/or flight crew to determine whether a near midair collision actually occurred and, if so, to initiate a near midair collision report.
9. Pilots are encouraged to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, especially when operating in conditions of reduced visibility.
10. ADS-B (Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast) is technology that allows air traffic controllers (and ADS-B equipped aircraft) to see traffic with more precision. Instead of relying on old radar technology, ADS-B uses highly accurate GPS signals. Because of this, ADS-B works where radar often will not.
    1. This system
       1. Works in remote areas such as mountainous terrain
       2. Functions at low altitudes and even on the ground
       3. Can be used to monitor traffic on the taxiways and runways
       4. Allows air traffic controllers as well as aircraft with certain equipment to receive ADS-B traffic
       5. Provides subscription-free weather information to all aircraft flying over the U.S.
    2. Beginning January 1, 2020, ADS-B is required. This system helps make our skies safer. For more information, visit www.garmin.com/us/intheair/ads-b.

3.1.8 ATIS AND ATC COMMUNICATIONS

1. Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is a continuous broadcast of recorded noncontrol information in selected high activity terminal areas (i.e., busy airports).
   1. The information is essential but routine.
2. The information included is the latest weather sequence, active runways, and other pertinent remarks.
   1. Ceilings are usually not broadcast if they are above 5,000 ft., and visibility is usually not mentioned if it is more than 5 statute miles.
3. After landing, you should contact ground control only when so instructed by the tower.
4. A clearance to taxi to the active runway is a clearance to taxi via taxiways to the active runway. You may not cross any runway along your taxi route unless specifically cleared by ATC to do so.
   1. When cleared to a runway, you are cleared to that runway’s runup area, but not onto the active runway itself.
   2. “Line up and wait” is the instruction to taxi onto the active runway and prepare for takeoff, but not to take off.
5. When notifying the tower that you are ready for departure, you must inform the controller of your location so (s)he can positively identify you before clearing you for takeoff.
   1. When departing from a runway intersection, identify both the runway and the intersection in your request.

3.1.9 AIRSPACE

1. Class A Airspace
   1. Class A airspace is generally the airspace from 18,000 ft. MSL up to and including FL 600, including the airspace overlying the waters within 12 NM of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska.
   2. Operating Rules and Equipment Requirements
      1. An IFR clearance to enter and operate within Class A airspace is mandatory. Pilots must be instrument rated to act as PIC of an airplane in Class A airspace.
      2. Two-way radio communication, appropriate navigational capability, a Mode C transponder with altitude reporting capability, and ADS-B Out equipment that operates on the frequency of 1090 MHz are required.
   3. Basic VFR Weather Minimums
      1. There are no applicable VFR weather minimums for aircraft operating in Class A airspace. All aircraft in Class A airspace must be on an IFR flight plan.
2. Class B Airspace
   1. Class B airspace is generally the airspace from the surface to 10,000 ft. MSL surrounding the nation’s busiest airports.
      1. The configuration of each Class B airspace area is individually tailored and consists of a surface area and two or more layers.
   2. Operating Rules and Equipment Requirements
      1. An ATC clearance is required prior to operating within Class B airspace.
      2. Two-way radio communication capability is required.
      3. An operating ATC (4096 code or Mode S) transponder and automatic altitude reporting equipment (Mode C) are required within and above the lateral limits of Class B airspace and within 30 NM of the primary airport.
      4. ADS-B Out equipment that either operates on the frequency of 1090 MHz or operates using a universal access transceiver (UAT) on the frequency of 978 MHz is required.
      5. The PIC must be at least a private pilot.
         1. A student or recreational pilot may fly solo in Class B airspace only if (s)he has met the requirements listed in 14 CFR 61.95.
      6. For IFR operations, an operable VOR is required in addition to a two-way radio and a Mode C transponder.
      7. The maximum indicated speed authorized when operating an airplane in the airspace underlying Class B airspace is 200 kt.
         1. If the minimum safe airspeed for any particular operation is greater than the maximum airspeed prescribed in 14 CFR Part 91, the airplane may be operated at that speed.
         2. In such cases, pilots are expected to advise ATC of the airspeed that will be used.
      8. Mode C Veil
         1. The Mode C veil is the airspace within 30 NM of a Class B primary airport from the surface up to 10,000 ft. MSL.
         2. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, aircraft (with some exceptions) operating within this airspace must be equipped with a Mode C transponder.
3. Class C Airspace
   1. Class C airspace surrounds airports that have an operational control tower, are serviced by a radar approach control, and have a certain number of IFR operations or passenger enplanements.
      1. Class C airspace normally consists of
         1. A surface area with a 5-NM radius that extends from the surface to 4,000 ft. AGL
         2. A shelf area with a 10-NM radius that extends from 1,200 ft. to 4,000 ft. AGL
   2. The general dimensions of Class C airspace are shown in the airspace diagram above.
      1. The outer area, which is the airspace between 10 NM and 20 NM from the primary Class C airport, is not considered Class C airspace.
         1. Radar services in this area are available but not mandatory.
   3. Operating Rules and Equipment Requirements
      1. Two-way radio communications must be established and maintained with ATC before entering and while operating in Class C airspace.
      2. The minimum equipment needed to operate within and above Class C airspace includes
         1. A 4096 code transponder with Mode C (altitude encoding) capability,
         2. Two-way communication capability, and
         3. ADS-B Out equipment that either operates on the frequency of 1090 MHz or operates using a UAT on the frequency of 978 MHz.
      3. When departing from a satellite airport without an operating control tower, pilots must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.
      4. Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, the maximum indicated airspeed permitted when at or below 2,500 ft. AGL within 4 NM of a Class C or Class D primary airport is 200 kt.

3.1.10 TERMINAL RADAR PROGRAMS

1. Terminal radar programs for VFR aircraft are classified as basic, TRSA, Class C, and Class B service.
   1. Basic radar service provides safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring on a workload-permitting basis.
   2. TRSA service provides sequencing and separation for all participating VFR aircraft operating within a Terminal Radar Service Area (TRSA).
2. Terminal radar program participation is voluntary for VFR traffic.
   1. Contact approach control when inbound.
   2. When departing, you should request radar traffic information from ground control on initial contact, along with your direction of flight.

3.1.11 TRANSPONDERS AND TRANSPONDER CODES

1. There are three kinds of civilian transponders used in U.S. airspace:
   1. Mode A
      1. A Mode A transponder, when requested by the air traffic control radar beacon system (ATCRBS), transmits a four-digit squawk code to ATC.
   2. Mode C (Automatic Altitude Reporting)
      1. This type of transponder converts your airplane’s altitude in 100-ft. increments to coded digital information, which is transmitted in the reply to the interrogating radar facility. A Mode C transponder provides this information in addition to transmitting the four-digit squawk code.
      2. If your airplane is Mode C-equipped, you must set your transponder to reply Mode C (i.e., set function switch to ALT) unless ATC requests otherwise.
      3. Mode C is required when flying
         1. At or above 10,000 ft. MSL, except in that airspace below 2,500 ft. AGL
         2. Within 30 NM of a Class B airspace primary airport
         3. Within and above a Class C airspace area
         4. Into, within, or across the U.S. ADIZ (Air Defense Identification Zone)
   3. Mode S (Selective)
      1. Mode S (Selective) transponders are designed to help air traffic control in busy areas and allow automatic collision avoidance.
         1. Mode S transponders allow TCAS (Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System) and TIS (Traffic Information System) to function.
      2. Mode S transponders broadcast information about the equipped aircraft to the Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) system, TCAS receivers on board aircraft, and to the ADS-B system.
         1. This information includes the call sign of the aircraft and/or the transponder’s permanent unit code (i.e., not the four-digit user-entered squawk code).
         2. These transponders also receive ground-based radar information through a datalink and can display that information to pilots to aid in collision avoidance.
2. The military has multiple kinds of transponders, and the military type that corresponds to civilian Mode A and civilian Mode C is referred to as military Mode 3. You may see FAA questions that refer to Mode A/3 or Mode C/3. The “3” is referring to military transponders, so just think “Mode A” or “Mode C.”
3. Code 1200 is the standard VFR transponder code.
4. The ident feature should not be engaged unless instructed by ATC.
5. Certain special codes should never be engaged (except in an emergency), as they may cause problems at ATC centers. These include the following:
   1. Code 7500 – Unlawful Interference (i.e. Aircraft hijacking)
   2. Code 7600 – Lost Radio Communications
   3. Code 7700 – general emergency
   4. Code 7777 – military interceptor
   5. Hi, Jack, I can’t hear you!

3.1.12 RADIO PHRASEOLOGY

1. When contacting a Flight Service Station to open, close, or file a flight plan, the proper call sign is the name of the FSS followed by “radio” (e.g., McAlester Radio).
2. Civilian aircraft should state their aircraft call sign with the make or model aircraft (e.g., Cessna 44WH or Baron 2DF).
   1. When a make or model is used, the initial November is dropped from the call sign.
3. Pilots should state each digit of the call sign individually (e.g., 6449U = six, four, four, niner, Uniform).
4. When calling out altitudes up to, but not including, 18,000 ft., state the separate digits of the thousands, plus the hundreds, if appropriate (e.g., 4,500 ft. = four thousand five hundred).
   1. Unless otherwise noted, the altitudes are MSL.

3.1.13 ATC TRAFFIC ADVISORIES

1. Radar traffic information services provide pilots with traffic advisories of nearby aircraft.
2. Traffic advisories provide information based on the position of other aircraft from your airplane in terms of clock direction in a no-wind condition (i.e., it is based on your ground track, not heading).
   1. 12 o’clock is straight ahead.
   2. 3 o’clock is directly off your right wing.
   3. 6 o’clock is directly behind you.
   4. 9 o’clock is directly off your left wing.
      Other positions are described accordingly, e.g., 2 o’clock, 10 o’clock.
3. Traffic advisories usually also include
   1. Distance away in miles
   2. Direction of flight of other aircraft
   3. Altitude of other aircraft

3.1.14 ATC LIGHT SIGNALS

1. In the absence of radio communications, the tower can communicate with you by light signals.
2. Light signal meanings depend on whether you are on the ground or in the air.
3. Acknowledge light signals in the air by rocking wings in daylight and blinking lights at night.
4. If your radio fails and you wish to land at a tower-controlled airport, remain outside or above the airport’s traffic pattern until the direction and flow of traffic has been determined, then join the traffic pattern and maintain visual contact with the tower to receive light signals.

	Color and Type of Signal	Aircraft on the Ground	Aircraft in Flight	Vehicles, Equip. & Personnel
	Steady Green	Cleared for takeoff	Cleared to land	Cleared to cross, proceed or go
	Flashing Green	Cleared for taxi	Return for landing, followed by steady green at appropriate time	Not applicable
	Steady Red	STOP	Give way to other aircraft and continue circling	STOP
	Flashing Red	Taxi clear of the runway in use	Airport unsafe, do not land	Clear the taxiway or runway
	Flashing White	Return to starting point on the airport	Not applicable	Return to starting point on the airport
	Alternating Red and Green	Exercise Extreme Caution	Exercise Extreme Caution	Exercise Extreme Caution

3.1.15 ELTs AND VHF/DF

1. Older ELTs transmit simultaneously on 121.5 and 243.0 MHz, while newer ELTs transmit on 406 MHz.
   1. For older ELTs, you can monitor either 121.5 or 243.0 MHz during flight and before shutdown (after landing) to ensure your ELT has not been activated.
   2. Effective January 11, 2019, the manufacture, importation, or sale of 121.5 MHz ELTs is prohibited. However, this rule does not preclude the continued use and maintenance of 121.5 MHz ELTs that are installed on aircraft before the rule’s effective date.
2. The VHF/Direction Finder facility is a ground operation that displays the magnetic direction of the airplane from the station each time the airplane transmits a signal to it.
3. In order to take advantage of VHF/DF radio reception for assistance in locating a position, an airplane must have both a VHF transmitter and a receiver. The transmitter and receiver are necessary to converse with a ground station having VHF/DF facilities.
   1. The transmitter is also needed to send the signal that the Direction Finder identifies in terms of magnetic heading from the facility

3.1.16 EMERGENCY RADIO FREQUENCY

1. Whenever a pilot encounters an emergency condition in an aircraft, (s)he can obtain assistance simply by contacting the air traffic control facility or other agency in whose area of responsibility the aircraft is operating, stating the nature of the emergency, the pilot’s intentions, and the assistance desired.
   1. If the pilot is not in contact with ATC, (s)he should broadcast on radio frequency 121.5 MHz. If the pilot must make an emergency landing, (s)he should set the transponder on 7700 (emergency squawk code).
   2. The distress or urgency message should consist of the following:
      1. If distress, begin with “MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY”
         1. If urgency, begin with “PAN-PAN, PAN-PAN, PAN-PAN”
      2. Station name or “any station”
      3. Aircraft identification and type
      4. Present position and heading (if lost, last known position, time, and heading since that position)
      5. Nature of the emergency
      6. Pilot’s intentions and any requests
   3. Other information that may be broadcast with the previous items (depending on the situation) include the following:
      1. Weather conditions (if applicable)
      2. Altitude or flight level
      3. Fuel remaining in minutes
      4. Number of people on board
      5. Any other useful information

3.1.17 LAND AND HOLD SHORT OPERATIONS (LAHSO)

1. Land and hold short operations (LAHSO) take place at some airports with an operating control tower in order to increase airport capacity and improve the flow of traffic.
   1. LAHSO requires that you land and hold short of an intersecting runway, an intersecting taxiway, or some other designated point on a runway.
2. Before accepting a clearance to land and hold short, you must determine that you can safely land and stop within the available landing distance (ALD).
   1. ALD data are published in the special notices section of the Chart Supplement.
   2. ATC will provide ALD data upon your request.
3. Student pilots should not participate in the LAHSO program.
4. The pilot in command has the final authority to accept or decline any LAHSO clearance.
   1. Decline a LAHSO clearance if you determine it will compromise safety.
5. You should receive a LAHSO clearance only when there is a minimum ceiling of 1,000 ft. and visibility of 3 SM.
   1. The intent of having basic VFR weather conditions is to allow pilots to maintain visual contact with other aircraft and ground vehicle operations.

4. Regulations

4.1 14 CFR PART 1

4.1.1 Night

• Night is the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight converted to local time, as published in the American Air Almanac. (PLT395) – 14 CFR 1.1
• Sunset to sunrise refers to the time when lighted position lights are required
• One (1) our after sunset to one (1) hour before sunrise refers to the currency requirement to carry passengers (14 CFR 61.57)

4.1.2 Certification of Airmen

1. Aircraft categories (for certification of airmen).
   1. Airplane
   2. Rotorcraft
   3. Glider
   4. Lighter-than-air
2. Airplane classes (for certification of airmen).
   1. Single-engine land
   2. Multi-engine land
   3. Single-engine sea
   4. Multi-engine sea
3. Rotorcraft classes (for certification of airmen).
   1. Helicopter
   2. Gyrocopter
4. Lighter-than-air classes (for certification of airmen).
   1. Airship
   2. Balloon

4.1.3 Certification of Aircraft

1. Aircraft categories (for certification of aircraft) is based on intended use or operating limitations.
   1. Transport
   2. Normal
   3. Utility
   4. Limited
   5. Restricted
   6. Acrobatic
   7. Provisional
2. Airplane classes (for certification of aircraft)
   1. Airplane
   2. Rotorcraft
   3. Glider
   4. Lighter-than-air

4.1.3 Certification of Aircraft

4.2 14 CFR PART 21

1. Airworthiness certificates remain in force as long as maintenance and alteration of the aircraft are performed per the Federal Aviation Regulations.

4.3 Title 14 CFR PART 39

1. Airworthiness Directives (ADs) are issued under 14 CFR Part 39 by the FAA to require correction of unsafe conditions found in an airplane, an airplane engine, a propeller, or an appliance when such conditions exist and are likely to exist or develop in other products of the same design. Note: Since ADs are issued under 14 CFR Part 39, they are regulatory and must be complied with, unless a specific exemption is granted (14 39.3)
2. No person may operate a product to which an AD applies except in accordance with the requirements of that AD. Note: Thus, you may operate an airplane that is not in compliance with an AD, if such operation is allowed by the AD. (CFR 14 39.9)

4.4 Title 14 CFR PART 43

1. A person who holds a pilot certificate (e.g., private pilot) may perform preventive maintenance on any airplane owned or operated by that pilot that is not used in air carrier services. (CFR 14 Part 43.3)
2. To approve the airplane for return to service, after preventive maintenance was done by a pilot, the pilot must hold at least a private pilot certificate. (CFR 14 Part 43.7)
3. After preventive maintenance has been performed, the signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work, the date, and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records. (CFR 14 Part 43.9)
4. Preventive maintenance means simple or minor preservation operations and the replacement of small standard parts not involving complex assembly operations. Examples include replenishing hydraulic fluid and servicing landing gear wheel bearings. (CFR 14 Part 43 Appendix A)

4.5 Title 14 CFR PART 47

A Dealer’s Aircraft Registration Certificate is another form of aircraft registration.
It is valid only for flights within the United States by the manufacturer or a dealer for flight testing or demonstration for sale.
Effective March 31, 2008, 14 CFR 47.41(b) requires the removal of the original aircraft registration certificate once the aircraft is sold.
The back side of that registration must be filled out with the appropriate information from the sale as well as the new owner’s name. The certificate must then be mailed back to the FAA Registry in Oklahoma City.

4.6 Title 14 CFR PART 61

4.6.1 REQUIREMENTS FOR CERTIFICATES, RATINGS, AND AUTHORIZATIONS (CFR 14 Part 61.3)

1. When acting as a pilot in command or as a required pilot flight crewmember, you must have a valid pilot certificate and a current and appropriate medical certificate in your personal possession or readily accessible in the airplane. (CFR 14 Part 61.3)
2. You must present your pilot certificate or medical certificate upon the request of the Administrator of the FAA or his or her representative; the NTSB; or any federal, state, or local law enforcement officer. (CFR 14 Part 61.3)

4.6.2 OFFENSES INVOLVING ALCOHOL OR DRUGS (CFR 14 Part 61.15)

• Each person holding a certificate under Part 61 shall provide a written report of each motor vehicle action involving alcohol or drugs to the FAA’s Security and Hazardous Materials Safety Office no later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.(CFR 14 Part 61.15)

4.6.3 MEDICAL CERTIFICATES: REQUIREMENT AND DURATION (CFR 14 Part 61.23)

1. A person must hold
   1. A first-class medical certificate when exercising the privileges of an ATP certificate
   2. At least a second-class medical certificate when exercising the privileges of a commercial pilot certificate
   3. At least a third-class medical certificate
      1. When exercising the privileges of a private, recreational, or student pilot certificate
      2. When exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate if the CFI is acting as PIC
      3. Prior to taking a practical test for a recreational, private, commercial, or ATP certificate or rating
2. Duration of a Medical Certificate
   1. A first-class medical certificate expires at the end of the last day of (PLT447) – 14 CFR Part 61.23
      1. The 12th month after the date of examination for operations requiring an ATP certificate if the person is under age 40
      2. The 6th month after the date of examination for operations requiring an ATP certificate if the person is age 40 or older
      3. The 12th month after the date of examination for operations requiring only a commercial pilot certificate
      4. The period specified in item c. below for operations requiring only a private, recreational, flight instructor (when acting as PIC), or student pilot certificate
   2. A second-class medical certificate expires at the end of the last day of (PLT447 – 14 CFR Part 61.23)
      1. The 12th month after the date of examination for operations requiring a commercial pilot certificate
      2. The period specified in item c. below for operations requiring only a private, recreational, flight instructor (when acting as PIC), or student pilot certificate
   3. A third-class medical certificate for operations requiring a private, recreational, flight instructor (when acting as PIC), or student pilot certificate expires at the end of the last day of (PLT447 – 14 CFR Part 61.23)
      1. The 60th month after the date of examination if the person has not reached his or her 40th birthday on or before the date of the examination
      2. The 24th month after the date of examination if the person has reached his or her 40th birthday on or before the date of examination
3. BasicMed allows a pilot to conduct certain operations using a U.S. driver’s license instead of a medical certificate as long as the pilot meets the following conditions:
   1. Has held an FAA medical certificate at any time after July 14, 2006, the most recent of which
      1. May have been a special issuance medical
         1. A one-time special issuance medical must be obtained for certain cardiovascular, neurological, and mental health conditions.
         2. May be expired
         3. Cannot have been suspended, revoked, withdrawn, or denied
      2. Completes an approved medical education course in the preceding 24 calendar months in accordance with 14 CFR Part 68
      3. Receives a comprehensive medical examination from a state licensed physician in the previous 48 months in accordance with 14 CFR Part 68
         1. The exam is not required to be conducted by an Aviation Medical Examiner (AME).
4. Medical Certificate Summary
   • 1st – 6 months (Airline Pilot)
   • 2nd – 1 Year (Charter/Commercial Pilot)
   • 3rd – 2 Years (over age 40), 5 Years (under 40) (Private Pilot)
   • Note: Medical certificates expire at the end of the calendar month

4.6.4 TYPE RATING REQUIREMENTS, ADDITIONAL TRAINING, AND AUTHORIZATION REQUIREMENTS (CFR 14 Part 61.31)

1. To act as pilot in command of a complex airplane, you must receive and log ground and flight training and receive a logbook endorsement.
   1. A complex airplane is defined as an airplane with retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller.
2. To act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, you must receive and log ground and flight training and receive a logbook endorsement.
   1. A high-performance airplane is defined as an airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower.
3. A person may not act as pilot in command of any of the following aircraft unless (s)he holds a type rating for that aircraft:
   1. A large aircraft (i.e., over 12,500 lb. gross weight)
   2. A turbojet-powered airplane
   3. Other aircraft specified by the FAA through aircraft type certification procedures

4.6.5 PILOT LOGBOOKS (CFR 14 Part 61.51)

1. A recreational pilot must carry his or her logbook with the required authorized instructor endorsements on all solo flights
   1. That exceed 50 NM from the airport at which training was received,
   2. Within airspace that requires communication with air traffic control,
   3. Conducted between sunset and sunrise, or
   4. In an aircraft for which the pilot does not hold an appropriate category or class rating.

4.6.6 FLIGHT REVIEW (CFR 14 Part 61.56)

1. A flight review must have been satisfactorily completed within the previous 24 calendar months to act as pilot in command of an aircraft for which that pilot is rated.
   1. A flight review consists of a minimum of 1 hour of flight training by an authorized instructor and 1 hour of ground training.
2. The expiration of the 24-month period for the flight review falls on the last day of the 24th month after the month of the examination date (i.e., 24 calendar months).

4.7 RECREATIONAL PILOT RELATEDFEDERAL AVIATION REGULATIONS (CFR Title 14 Part 61.101)

• NOTE: This section is not tested on the Private Pilot Airplane (PAR) or Private Pilot-Airplane Transition (PAT) knowledge test.

4.8 TITLE 14 CFR PART 91: 91.3 – 91.151

4.8.1 RESPONSIBILITY AND AUTHORITY OF THE PILOT IN COMMAND (PIC) (CFR Title 14 Part 91.3)

1. In emergencies, a pilot may deviate from Federal Aviation Regulations to the extent needed to maintain the safety of the airplane and passengers.
2. The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft.
3. A written report of any deviations from Federal Aviation Regulations should be filed with the FAA upon request.

4.8.2 CIVIL AIRCRAFT AIRWORTHINESS (CFR Title 14 Part 91.7)

1. The pilot in command is responsible for determining that the airplane is airworthy prior to every flight.
   1. The pilot in command shall discontinue the flight when unairworthy conditions (whether electrical, mechanical, or structural) occur.

4.8.3 CIVIL AIRCRAFT FLIGHT MANUAL, MARKING, AND PLACARD REQUIREMENTS (CFR Title 14 Part 91.9)

1. The airworthiness certificate, the FAA registration certificate, and the aircraft flight manual or operating limitations must be aboard.
2. hat does an aircraft need to have in order to be legal to fly (ARROW)?
   • A – Airworthiness FAR 91.203
   • R – Registration FAR 91.203
   • R – Radio Station License (if operated outside US..i.e. Canada) FCC Requirement
   • O – Operations Manual (are any substitutes allowed) FAR 91.9
   • W – Weight and Balance FAR 23.1591, FAR 23.1583, FAR 23.1559,
3. The operating limitations of an airplane may be found in the current FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.
   1. An exception exists in the case of aircraft issued an experimental airworthiness certificate or a special light-sport airworthiness certificate.
      1. The operating limitations for these aircraft are attached to the airworthiness certificate, which is carried on board the aircraft.

4.8.4 DROPPING OBJECTS (CFR Title 14 Part 91.15)

1. No pilot in command of a civil aircraft may allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property.
   1. However, this section does not prohibit the dropping of any object if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property.

4.8.5 ALCOHOL OR DRUGS (CFR Title 14 Part 91.17)

1. No person may act as a crewmember of a civil airplane while having .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood or if any alcoholic beverages have been consumed within the preceding 8 hr. Remember “8 hours bottle to throttle.” (PLT463) – 14 CFR 91.17
2. No person may act as a crewmember of a civil airplane if using any drug that affects the person’s faculties in any way contrary to safety.
3. Operating or attempting to operate an aircraft as a crewmember while under the influence of drugs or alcohol is grounds for the denial of an application for a certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR Part 91.
   1. While experiencing a hangover, a pilot is still under the influence of alcohol and will have impaired motor and mental responses.
4. A pilot may not allow a person who is obviously under the influence of alcohol or drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft except in an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.

4.8.6 PREFLIGHT ACTION (CFR Title 14 Part 91.103)

1. Pilots are required to familiarize themselves with all available information concerning the flight prior to every flight, and specifically to determine,
   1. For any flight, runway lengths at airports of intended use and the airplane’s takeoff and landing requirements, and
   2. For IFR flights or those not in the vicinity of an airport,
      1. Weather reports and forecasts,
      2. Fuel requirements,
      3. Alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed, and
      4. Any known traffic delays.

4.8.7 FLIGHT CREWMEMBERS AT STATIONS (CFR Title 14 Part 91.105)

1. During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each required flight crewmember shall keep his or her safety belt fastened while at his or her station.
   1. If shoulder harnesses are available, they must be used for takeoff and landing.

4.8.8 USE OF SAFETY BELTS, SHOULDER HARNESSES, AND CHILD RESTRAINT SYSTEMS (CFR Title 14 Part 91.107)

1. Pilots must ensure that each occupant is briefed on how to use the safety belts and, if installed, shoulder harnesses. 
2. Pilots must notify all occupants to fasten their safety belts and shoulder harnesses, if installed, before taxiing, taking off, or landing.(PLT465) – 14 CFR 91.107
3. All passengers of airplanes must wear their safety belt and shoulder harness, if installed, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings.
   1. A passenger who has not reached his or her second birthday may be held by an adult.
   2. Sport parachutists may use the floor of the aircraft as a seat (but still must use safety belts). (PLT465) – 14 CFR 91.107

4.8.9 OPERATING NEAR OTHER AIRCRAFT (CFR Title 14 Part 91.111)

1. No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.

4.8.10 RIGHT-OF-WAY RULES: EXCEPT WATER OPERATIONS (CFR Title 14 Part 91.113)

1. Aircraft in distress have the right-of-way over all other aircraft (PLT414) – 14 CFR 91.113
2. When two aircraft are approaching head on or nearly so, the pilot of each aircraft should turn to his or her right, regardless of category (PLT414) – 14 CFR 91.113
3. When two aircraft of different categories are converging, the right-of-way depends upon who has the least maneuverability. Thus, the right-of-way belongs to (PLT414) – 14 CFR 91.113:
   1. Balloons over
   2. Gliders over
   3. Airships over
   4. Airplanes or rotorcraft 
4. When aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same altitude, except head on or nearly so, the aircraft to the other’s right has the right-of-way.
   1. If an airplane of the same category as yours is approaching from your right side, it has the right-of-way.
5. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way.
   1. This rule shall not be abused by cutting in front of or overtaking another aircraft.
6. An aircraft towing or refueling another aircraft has the right-of-way over all engine-driven aircraft. (PLT414) 14 CFR 91.113

4.8.11 RIGHT-OF-WAY RULES: WATER OPERATIONS (CFR Title 14 Part 91.115)

1. When aircraft, or an aircraft and a vessel, are on crossing courses, the aircraft or vessel to the other’s right has the right-of-way.

4.8.12 AIRCRAFT SPEED (CFR Title 14 Part 91.117)

1. The speed limit is 250 kt. (288 MPH) when flying below 10,000 ft. MSL.
2. The speed limit within Class B airspace is 250 kt. (288 MPH).
   1. When flying under Class B airspace or in VFR corridors through Class B airspace, the speed limit is 200 kt. (230 MPH).
3. When at or below 2,500 ft. AGL and within 4 NM of the primary airport of Class C or Class D airspace, the speed limit is 200 kt. (230 MPH).

4.8.13 MINIMUM SAFE ALTITUDES: GENERAL (CFR Title 14 Part 91.119)

1. Over congested areas (cities, towns, settlements, or open-air assemblies), a pilot must maintain an altitude of 1,000 ft. above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 ft. of the airplane.
2. The minimum altitude over other than congested areas is 500 ft. AGL.
   1. Over open water or sparsely populated areas, an airplane may not be operated closer than 500 ft. to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
3. Altitude in all areas must be sufficient to permit an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface if a power unit fails.

4.8.14 ALTIMETER SETTINGS (CFR Title 14 Part 91.121)

1. Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to the current local altimeter setting. If the current local altimeter setting is not available, use the departure airport elevation.
2. The altimeter of an airplane is required to be set to 29.92 at or above 18,000 ft. MSL to guarantee vertical separation of airplanes above 18,000 ft. MSL.

4.8.15 COMPLIANCE WITH ATC CLEARANCES AND INSTRUCTIONS (CFR Title 14 Part 91.123)

1. When an ATC clearance is obtained, no pilot may deviate from that clearance, except in an emergency, unless an amended clearance is obtained or the deviation is in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory. If you feel a rule deviation will occur, you should immediately advise ATC.
2. If you receive priority from ATC in an emergency, you must, upon request, file a detailed report within 48 hr. to the chief of that ATC facility even if no rule has been violated.
3. During an in-flight emergency, the pilot in command may deviate from Federal Aviation Regulations to the extent necessary to handle the emergency.
   1. The pilot should notify ATC about the deviation as soon as possible.
   2. If priority is given, a written report (if requested) must be submitted in 48 hours.

4.8.16 FUEL REQUIREMENTS FOR FLIGHT IN VFR CONDITIONS(CFR Title 14 Part 91.151)

1. During the day, Federal Aviation Regulations require fuel sufficient to fly to the first point of intended landing and then for an additional 30 min., assuming normal cruise speed.
2. At night, sufficient fuel to fly an additional 45 min. is required.

4.9 TITLE 14 CFR PART 91: 91.159-91.519

4.9.1 VFR CRUISING ALTITUDE OR FLIGHT LEVEL (CFR Title 14 Part 91.159)

1. Specified altitudes are required for VFR cruising flight at more than 3,000 ft. AGL and below 18,000 ft. MSL.
   1. The altitude prescribed is based upon the magnetic course (not magnetic heading).
   2. The altitude is prescribed in ft. above mean sea level (MSL).
   3. Use an odd thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 ft. for magnetic courses of 0° to 179°, e.g., 3,500, 5,500, or 7,500 ft.
   4. Use an even thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 ft. for magnetic courses of 180° to 359°, e.g., 4,500, 6,500, or 8,500 ft.
   5. As a memory aid, remember “East is odd; west is even odder.”

4.9.2 CIVIL AIRCRAFT: CERTIFICATIONS REQUIRED (CFR Title 14 Part 91.203)

1. No person may operate a civil aircraft unless the aircraft has a U.S. airworthiness certificate displayed in a manner that makes it legible to passengers and crew.
2. To operate a civil aircraft, a valid U.S. registration issued to the owner of the aircraft must be on board.

4.9.3 EMERGENCY LOCATOR TRANSMITTERS (CFR Title 14 Part 91.207)

1. ELT batteries must be replaced (or recharged, if rechargeable) after 1 cumulative hr. of use or after 50% of their useful life expires.
2. ELTs may only be tested on the ground during the first 5 min. after the hour. No airborne checks are allowed.
3. ELTs are required to be inspected every 12 months for proper installation, battery corrosion, operation of the controls and crash sensor, and the presence of a sufficient signal radiated from its antenna.

4.9.4 AIRCRAFT LIGHTS (CFR Title 14 Part 91.209)

1. Airplanes operating (on the ground or in the air) between sunset and sunrise must display lighted position (navigation) lights, except in Alaska.

4.9.5 SUPPLEMENTAL OXYGEN (CFR Title 14 Part 91.211)

1. All occupants must be provided with oxygen in an airplane operated at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 ft. MSL.
   1. Pilots and crewmembers may not operate an airplane at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 ft. MSL up to and including 14,000 ft. MSL for more than 30 min. without supplemental oxygen.
   2. Pilots and crewmembers must use supplemental oxygen at cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 ft. MSL.

4.9.6 ATC TRANSPONDER AND ALTITUDE REPORTING EQUIPMENT AND USE (CFR Title 14 Part 91.215)

1. All aircraft must have and use an altitude-encoding transponder when operating
   1. Within Class A airspace
   2. Within Class B airspace
   3. Within 30 NM of the Class B airspace primary airport
   4. Within and above Class C airspace
   5. Above 10,000 ft. MSL except at and below 2,500 ft. AGL
2. To enter Class B airspace, you must submit a request for a deviation from the controlling ATC facility at least 1 hr. before the proposed flight.

4.9.7 ADS-B OUT EQUIPMENT AND USE (CFR Title 14 Part 91.225)

1. No person may operate an aircraft in the following airspace unless the aircraft has the appropriate ADS-B Out equipment installed:
   1. Within Class A airspace
   2. Within and above Class B airspace
   3. Within 30 NM of the Class B airspace primary airport
   4. Within and above Class C airspace
   5. At and above 10,000 ft. MSL except at and below 2,500 ft. AGL
   6. At and above 3,000 ft. MSL over the Gulf of Mexico from the U.S. coastline out to 12 NM
2. These requirements do not apply to any aircraft not originally certificated with an electrical system or that has not subsequently been certified with such a system installed.
3. Requests for ATC-authorized deviations from these requirements must be made to the appropriate ATC facility
   1. At any time for an aircraft with an inoperative ADS-B Out
   2. At least 1 hr. before the proposed operation of an aircraft that is not equipped with ADS-B Out

4.9.8 PARACHUTES AND PARACHUTING (CFR Title 14 Part 91.307)

1. With certain exceptions, each occupant of an aircraft must wear an approved parachute during any intentional maneuver exceeding
   1. 60° bank or
   2. A nose-up or nose-down attitude of 30°.
2. Parachutes that are available for emergency use must be packed within a specific time period, based on the materials from which they are constructed.
   1. Parachutes that include a canopy, shrouds, and harness that are composed exclusively of nylon, rayon, or other similar synthetic fibers must have been repacked by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding 180 days.
   2. Parachutes that include any part that is composed of silk, pongee, or other natural fiber or materials must be repacked by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding 60 days.

4.9.9 RESTRICTED CATEGORY CIVIL AIRCRAFT: OPERATING LIMITATIONS (CFR Title 14 Part 91.313)

1. Restricted category civil aircraft may not normally be operated
   1. Over densely populated areas,
   2. In congested airways, or
   3. Near a busy airport where passenger transport is conducted.

4.9.10 AIRCRAFT HAVING EXPERIMENTAL CERTIFICATES: OPERATING LIMITATIONS (CFR Title 14 Part 91.319)

1. No person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental or restricted certificate over a densely populated area or in a congested airway unless authorized by the FAA.

4.9.11 GENERAL (CFR Title 14 Part 91.403)

1. The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition and for complying with all Airworthiness Directives (ADs).
2. An operator is a person who uses, or causes to use or authorizes to use, an aircraft for the purpose of air navigation, including the piloting of an aircraft, with or without the right of legal control (i.e., owner, lessee, or otherwise).
   1. Thus, the pilot in command is also responsible for ensuring that the aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition and that there is compliance with all ADs.

4.9.12 MAINTENANCE REQUIRED (CFR Title 14 Part 91.405)

1. Each owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service.

4.9.13 OPERATION AFTER MAINTENANCE, PREVENTIVE MAINTENANCE, REBUILDING, OR ALTERATION (CFR Title 14 Part 91.407)

1. When aircraft alterations or repairs change the flight characteristics, the aircraft must be test flown and approved for return to service prior to carrying passengers.
   1. The pilot test flying the aircraft must be at least a private pilot and rated for the type of aircraft being tested.

4.9.14 INSPECTIONS (CFR Title 14 Part 91.409)

1. Annual inspections expire on the last day of the 12th calendar month after the previous annual inspection.
2. All aircraft that are used for compensation or hire, including flight instruction, must be inspected on a 100-hr. basis in addition to the annual inspection.
   1. 100-hr. inspections are due every 100 hr. from the prior due time, regardless of when the inspection was actually performed.

4.9.15 INSPECTIONS (CFR Title 14 Part 91.413)

1. No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within the preceding 24 calendar months.

4.9.16 MAINTENANCE RECORDS (CFR Title 14 Part 91.417)

1. An airplane may not be flown unless it has been given an annual inspection within the preceding 12 calendar months.
   1. The annual inspection expires after 1 year, on the last day of the month of issuance.
2. The completion of the annual inspection and the airplane’s return to service should be appropriately documented in the airplane maintenance records.
   1. The documentation should include the current status of airworthiness directives and the method of compliance.
3. The airworthiness of an airplane can be determined by a preflight inspection and a review of the maintenance records.

4.9.17 REBUILT ENGINE MAINTENANCE RECORDS (CFR Title 14 Part 91.421)

1. A new maintenance record, without previous operating history, may be used for an aircraft engine rebuilt by the manufacturer or by an agency approved by the manufacturer.

4.9.18 PASSENGER BRIEFING (CFR Title 14 Part 91.519)

1. The pilot in command is responsible for ensuring that all passengers have been orally briefed prior to takeoff. The areas that should constitute this briefing are
   1. Smoking,
   2. Use of safety belts and shoulder harnesses,
   3. Location and means of opening the passenger entry door and emergency exits,
   4. Location of survival equipment,
   5. Ditching procedures and the use of flotation equipment, and
   6. Normal and emergency use of oxygen equipment if installed in the airplane.

4.10 NTSB PART 830

4.10.1 IMMEDIATE NOTIFICATION (NTSB PART 830.5)

1. Even when no injuries occur to occupants, an airplane accident resulting in substantial damage must be reported to the nearest National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) field office immediately.
2. The following incidents must also be reported immediately to the NTSB:
   1. Inability of any required crewmember to perform normal flight duties because of in-flight injury or illness
   2. In-flight fire
   3. Flight control system malfunction or failure
   4. An overdue airplane that is believed to be involved in an accident
   5. An airplane collision in flight
   6. Turbine (jet) engine failures

4.10.2 PRESERVATION OF AIRCRAFT WRECKAGE, MAIL, CARGO, AND RECORDS (NTSB PART 830.10)

1. Prior to the time the Board or its authorized representative takes custody of aircraft wreckage, mail, or cargo, such wreckage, mail, or cargo may not be disturbed or moved except to
   1. Remove persons injured or trapped,
   2. Protect the wreckage from further damage, or
   3. Protect the public from injury.

4.10.3 REPORTS AND STATEMENTS TO BE FILED (NTSB PART 830.15)

1. The operator of an aircraft shall file a report on Board Form 6120.1/2 within 10 days after an accident.
   1. A report must be filed within 7 days if an overdue aircraft is still missing.
2. A report on an incident for which immediate notification is required (830.5) shall be filed only when requested by an authorized representative of the Board.

5. Airplane Performance and Weight and Balance

5.1 Density Altitude

4.2 Pilot Certificate Privileges and Limitations

• A private pilot may not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees (PLT448) – 14 CFR 61.113
• A private pilot may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft used in a passenger-carrying airlift sponsored by a charitable organization, and for which the passengers make a donation to the organization. This can be done if the sponsor of the airlift notifies the FAA General Aviation District Office having jurisdiction over the area concerned, at least 7 days before the flight, and furnishes any essential information that the office requests (PLT448) – Title 14 CFR 61.113

4.3 Pilot Ratings

• With respect to the certification of airmen, “category” means a broad classification of aircraft such as airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air, weight-shift control, and powered parachute. (PLT371) – 14 CFR 1.1
• With respect to the certification of airmen, “class” means a broad classification of aircraft with similar operating characteristics such as single-engine land/sea and multi-engine land/sea, gyroplane, helicopter, airship, and free balloon. (PLT371) – 14 CFR 1.1

• A type rating is required in order for a pilot to act as pilot-in-command of a large aircraft (except lighter-than-air) which is further defined as more than 12,500 pounds maximum certified takeoff weight or a turbojet-powered aircraft. (PLT451 – 14 CFR 61.31

• 	Aircraft	Airmen
  Category	Normal, Transport, Utility. Acrobatic, Limited, Restricted, Provisional	Aircraft, rotorcraft, glider, powered parachute, powered lift and lighter than air
  Class	Airplane, Rotorcraft, Glider, Balloon, Land plane, Sea plane	Single engine land, multi-engine land, single engine sea and multi-engine sea
  Type	LTA, AX-7, AX-8 DC7, DC10	Boeing 737, Cessna 172
  Tips for Remembering	Cats always land on their feet, right? Think of "Acrobatic cat(egory)	Men, cats, and rats." "Rat" in this case is the "rot" of "rotorcraft"

4.5 Required Certificates

• No person may act as pilot-in-command (PIC), or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, of a civil aircraft of United States registry unless he/she has in possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current pilot certificate and a photo ID. Except for free balloon pilots piloting balloons and glider pilots piloting gliders, no person may act as pilot-in-command or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember of an aircraft unless he/she has in possession or readily accessible in the aircraft an appropriate current medical certificate. (PLT399) – 14 CFR 61.3

4.6 Recent Flight Experience

• Each pilot must complete a flight review every 24 calendar months (PLT449) – 14 CFR 61.56
• No person may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers during the period beginning

4.7 High-Performance Airplanes

• A high-performance airplane is one with an engine of more than 200 horsepower (PLT395) – 14 CFR 61.31
• No person holding a Private or Commercial pilot certificate may pilot a high-performance aircraft unless he or she has received instruction and has been certified competent in his/her logbook. (PLT448) – 14 CFR 61.31

• 4.9 Change of Address

• 61.60 Change of Address: Within 30 days of the change: FAA Airman Certification Branch, P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125 or online at Airmen On-Line Services
• The holder of a Pilot or Flight Instructor Certificate who has made a change in his/her permanent mailing address may not, after 30 days from the date moved, exercise the privileges of his/her certificate unless he/she has notified in writing the Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, Airmen Certification Branch, Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125, of the new address. (PLT387) – 14 CFR 61.60

4.10 Responsibility and Authority of the Pilot-in-Command

• The pilot-in-command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to the operation of that aircraft. )PLT444) – 14 CFR 91.3
• If an emergency requires immediate action, the pilot-in-command may deviate from the operating rules of Part 91 to the extent necessary to meet that emergency. No report of such deviation is required unless the FAA requests one. (PLT444) – 14 CFR 91.3
• The pilot-in-command of an aircraft is responsible for determining whether that aircraft is in condition for safe flight.  The pilot shall discontinue the flight when unairworthy mechanical, electrical or structural conditions occur. (PLT444) – 14 CFR 91.7

4.11 Preflight Action

• Each pilot-in-command shall, before each flight, become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. This information must include:

(a) For a flight under IFR or a flight not in the vicinity of an airport, weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic delays cannot be completed, and any known traffic delays of which the pilot has been advised by ATC;

(b) For any flight, runway lengths of airports of intended use, and the following takeoff and landing distance information:

1. For civil aircraft for which an approved airplane or rotorcraft flight manual containing takeoff and landing distance data is required, the takeoff and landing distance data contained therein; and

2. For civil aircraft other than those specified in paragraph (b) (1) of this section, other reliable information appropriate to the aircraft, relating to aircraft performance under expected values of airport elevation and runway slope, aircraft gross weight, and wind and temperature. (PLT445) -14 CFR 91.103

• 4.15 Aerobatic Flight

No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight when:

• Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement;
• Over an open-air assembly of persons;
• Within thee lateral boundaries of Class B,C,D, or E airspace designated for an airport;
• Within 4 nautical miles of the centerline of a federal airway;
• Below an altitude of 1500 feet above the surface; or
• When flight visibility is less than 3 statute miles. (PLT369) – 14 CFR 91.303
• No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight in any class of airspace below an altitude of 1500 feet above the surface. (PLT369) – 14 CFR 91.303

4.16 Parachutes

• No pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a parachute that is available for emergency use to be carried in that aircraft unless, if a chair type, it has been packed by a certified and appropriately-rated parachute rigger within the preceding 180 days. (PLY405) – 14 CFR 91.307
• Unless each occupant of the aircraft is wearing an approved parachute, no pilot of a civil aircraft, carrying any person (other than a crewmember) may execute an intentional maneuver that exceeds 60 degrees bank 30 degrees nose up or down, relative to the horizon. (PLT369) – 14 CFR 91.307

4.17 Deviation from Air Traffic Control Instructions

• Except in an emergency, no person may operate an aircraft contrary to an ATC clearance or instruction (PLT444 – 14 CFR Part 91.123)
• The regulations authorize deviations from a clearance in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory. You must notify ATC as soon as possible following the deviation. (PLT444 – 14 CFR Part 91.123)
• Each pilot-in-command who deviated from an ATC clearance during an emergency must submit a detailed report within 48 hours if requested by ATC. (PLT403 – 14 CFR Part 91.123)
• Each pilot-in-command who (though not deviating from a rule of 14 CFR Part 91) is given priority by ATC in an emergency shall, if requested by ATC, submit a detailed report of that emergency within 48 hours to the chief of that ATC facility. (PLT444 – 14 CFR Part 91.123)

4.18 Minimum Safe Altitudes

• Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person may operate an aircraft anywhere below an altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface (PLT430) – 14 CFR 91.119
• Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person may operate an aircraft over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open air assembly of persons, below an altitude of 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2000 feet of the aircraft (PLT430) – 14 CFR 91.119

4.19 Basic VFR Weather Minimums

Airspace		Flight Visibility	Distance from Clouds
Class A		Not Applicable	Not Applicable
Class B		3 statute miles	Clear of clouds
Class C		3 statute miles	500 feet below 1000 feet above 2000 feet horizontal
Class D		3 statute miles	500 feet below 1000 feet above 2000 feet horizontal
Class E	Less than 10,000 feet MSL	3 statute miles	500 feet below 1000 feet above 2000 feet horizontal
Class E	At or above 10,000 feet MSL	5 statute miles	1000 feet below 1000 feet above 1 statute mile horizontal
Class G	1200 feet or less above the surface (regardless of MSL altitude)

• Minimum horizontal distance from clouds within Class C, D, or E airspace below 10,000 MSL is 2,000 feet. See Table xxx. (PLT163) – 14 CFR 91.155
• An airway below 10,000 feet MSL is either Class B, C, or D, or E airspace, and requires 3 miles flight visibility. See table xxx (PLT467) – 14 CFR 91.155
• An airway below 10,000 feet MSL is either Class B, C, or D, or E airspace, and requires a cloud clearance of 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally. See table xxx (PLT467) – 14 CFR 91.155
• Class B,C, D, and E airspace are all controlled airspace in which VFR flight is allowed, and requires a cloud clearance of 1,000 feet above at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL. See table xxx. (PLT 468 – 14 CFR 91.155
• With the exception of Class B airspace, VFR flight into controlled airspace requires 3 statute miles visibility and cloud clearance of 500 feet below and 1,000 feet above when operating above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL. See table xxx. (PLT468) – 14 CFR 91.155
• Controlled airspace above 10,000 feet which allows VFR is Class E airspace, and requires 5 statute miles visibility above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL. See table xxx.. (PLT163) – 14 CFR 91.155

4.20 Special VFR Weather Minimums

4.21 VFR Cruising Altitudes

• When following a 000-to-179° track, an aircraft should fly at an odd level or altitude.
• When following a 180-to-359° track, an aircraft should fly at an even level or altitude.
• The general rule is “easterners are ODD, westerners are EVEN odder”, meaning odd altitudes above 3500 feet when going east, and even altitudes above 3500

4.27 Maintenance and Inspections

• Inspections (SAVITE)
• S – Static System (24 months) (IFR Only)
• A – Altimeter (24 months) (IFR Only)
• V – VOR (30 days) (IFR only)
• I – Inspections
  100 hour (if for Hire (i.e. charter) or Flight Instruction)
  Annual Inspection
• T – Transponder (24 months)
• E – ELT – 12 months (usually done as part of annual)What documents does private pilot need to have with him/her to be legal to fly?

Type – Cessna 172

• Type rating only required  >12,500 lbs, Turbine Powered

Class – Single Engine Land (SEL), MEL, SES, Helicopter, Gyro

• Category – Airplane, Rotorcraft, Lighter than Air
• Pilot License – Does not expire

4.29 Accident Reporting Requirements

• The operator of an aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest NTSB field office when an aircraft accident occurs. (PLT366) – NTSB 830.5
• A flight control system malfunction or failure requires immediate NTSB notifications (PLT366) – NTSB 830.5
• Immediate notification of the NTSB is necessary if an inflight fire occurs (PLT366) – NTSB 830.5
• When an aircraft is overdue and believed to have been involved in an accident, the NTSB must be notified immediately. (PLT366) – NTSB 830.5
• Prior to the time the Board and its authorized representative takes custody of aircraft wreckage, it may not be disturbed or moved except to remove persons injured or trapped, to protect the wreckage from further damage, or to protect the public from injury. (PLT366) – NTSB 830.10
• The operator of an aircraft shall file a report on Board Form  6120.1 or 6120.2 within 10 days of an accident. (PLT366) – NTSB 830.15
• A report on an incident for which notification is required shall be filed as requested by an authorized representative of the Board. (PLT366) – NTSB 830.15
• While taxing on a parking ramp, the landing gear is damaged by striking ground equipment.  This event would not require notification or a report  with the NTSB since it is not an accident or considered substantial damage per the regulations (PLT366) – NTSB 830.2
• NTSB Part 830 contains regulations pertaining to notification and reporting of aircraft accidents or incidents and overdue aircraft, and preservation of aircraft wreckage, mail, cargo, and records. (PLT366)

V Speeds

V-speed designator	Description	C152 KIAS	C172 KIAS
VS0	Stall with Flaps		44
VS1	Stall Without Flaps		50
VR	Rotation Speed		55
VX	Speed that will allow for best angle of climb		59
VY	Speed that will allow for the best rate of climb		73
VFE	Max flap extended speed		85
VLE	Max landing gear extended speed
VA	Max design maneuvering speed		97
VNO	Max structural cruising speed		128
VNE	Never exceed		160

5.5 Surface Operations

11. Communication Procedures

11.1 Phraseology, Techniques, and Procedures

• The term “initial radio contact,” or “initial callup'” means the first radio call you make to a given facility, or the first call to a different controller or FSS specialist within a facility.  Use the following format:
  • Name of facility being called
  • Your full aircraft identification as filed in the flight plan;
  • Type of message to follow or your request if it is short, and
  • The word “over,”, if required.
• Example: “New York Radio, Mooney Three One One Echo.” When the aircraft manufacturers’ name or model is stated, the prefix “N” is dropped.  The first two characters of the call sign may be dropped only after ATC calls you by the last three letters/numbers. (PLT204) AIM4-2-3
• ​​Up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL, state the separate digits of the thousands, plus the hundreds, if appropriate. Example: “4,500 – four thousand, five hundred.” (PLT204) – AIM 4-2-9
  • Example: “Four thousand, five hundred”, or “One Zero thousand, Five hundred.”,
  • Where there is no tower, FSS, or UNICOM station on the airport, use MULTICOM frequency 122.9 for self-announce procedures.  Such airports will be identified in the appropriate aeronautical information publications. (PLT435) – AIM 4-1-9

11.2 Airport Traffic Area and Light Signals

• A steady green light signal directed to an aircraft in flight means that the pilot is cleared to land. (PLT141) – 14 CFR 91.125
• An alternating red and green light signal means to exercise extreme caution. (PLT141) – 14 CFR 91.125
• A flashing green light  

11.3 Radar Assistance to VFR Aircraft

• Pilots of departing VFR aircraft are encouraged to request radar traffic information by notifying ground control on initial contact with their request and proposed direction of flight. (PLT204) AIM 4-1-18

11.5 Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT)

• ​ELTs transmit an audio tone on 121.5, 243.0, and 406 MHz.  ELTs operating on 121.5 and 243.0 MHz are analog devices.  The newer 406 MHz ELT is a digital transmitter that can be encoded with the owner’s contact information or aircraft data. (PLT402) AIM 6-2-4
• ELT batteries must be replaced after 1 hour of cumulative use or when 50% of their useful life has expired, whichever comes first. (PLT402) – 14 CFR 91.207
• An ELT test should be conducted only during the first 5 minutes after any hour then only for three audible sweeps. (PLT402) AIM 6-2-4
• Immediately after hard landings and before parking, check radio frequency 121.5 MHz. (PLT402) AIM 6-2-4

 FAR Chapters for Private Pilots

• Federal Aviation Regulations FAR’s
  • FAR’s -The FAA’s official website
• FAR Part 21– Certification Procedures for Products and Parts
  • 21.181 – The airworthiness certificate of an aircraft remains valid as long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by the FARs.
• FAR Part 39 – Airworthiness Directives (ADs)
  • ADs are issued by the FAA to require correction of an unsafe conditions inherit in the design of an airplane, an airplane engine, a propeller, or an appliance
  • ADs are issued when an unsafe conditions have found in the examples of the design and are likely to develop  in others examples of that design
  • ADs are mandatory and must be complied unless an explicit exemption is granted
• FAR Part 43 – Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, Rebuilding, and Alteration
  • Any person with a pilot’s certificate issued under part 61 of the the FARs may perform preventive maintenance on that aircraft owned or operated by that person
  • When preventive maintenance has been performed on an aircraft, the signature, the certificate number, the type of certificate, and a description of the work must be entered into the aircraft maintenance records.  Examples are:
    • Servicing the landing gear wheel bearing
    • Replenishing the hydraulic fluid
• FAR Part 61– Certification: Pilots, Flight Instructors, and Ground Instructors
• Pilot in Command (PIC) must have

6. PIC carrying passengers

7. To act as PIC of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have 3 takeoff and 3 landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and type (if applicable) within the preceding 90 days and, if the aircraft to be flown is an airplane with a tail wheel, the takeoffs and landings must have been made to a full stop in an airplane with a tail wheel.

10.

• 61.57 Recent Flight Experience
  • Must have at least 3 takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days
•  

• CFR 14 1.1 Requirements for Certificates, ratings, and Authorizations

• FAR Part 71- Extent of Federal Airways
• FAR Part 91- General Operating and Flight Rules
  • Responsibility and Authority of the Pilot in Command (PIC)
  • 91.126 – 91.131 Airspace
  • 91.121 states that your altimeter must be set to the current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 nautical miles of your aircraft, or if there is no station within this area, the current reported altimeter setting of an appropriate available station. Third, this rule requires VFR traffic to operate at even or odd altitudes plus 500 feet, while IFR traffic is generally assigned to fly the cardinal altitudes
    — 2,000, 3,000, 4,000, 5,000, and so on.  Remember this by saying that east is odd, but west is so much odder as to be even, and then add 500 feet. Another memory aid is WEEO, for west even, east odd — again, plus 500 feet.
• NTSB 830.5
  • NTSB must be notified immediately if:
    • Flight control system malfunction or failure;
    • Inability of any required flight crew member to perform normal flight duties as a result of injury or illness;
    • Failure of structural components of a turbine engine, excluding compressor and turbine blades and vanes;
    • In-flight fire; or
    • Aircraft collision in flight
• Other Resources
  • AirNav – Airport and Nav Aid Information
• SU 9: Navigation
  • Distance from Clouds
  • Private Pilot Single Engine
    Practical Test (47 Tasks)
    • Knowledge Test
    • Oral Test (9 tasks)
  • 1. Airplanes and Aerodynamics
    • Flaps and Rudder
    • Aerodynamic Forces
    • Angle of Attack
    • Stalls and Spins
    • Frost
    • Ground Effect
    • Airplane Turn
    • Airplane Stability
    • Torque and P-Factor
    • Load Factor
  • 2. Airplane Instruments, Engines, and Systems
    • Compass Turning Error
      • Magnetic Dip (Northern Hemisphere)
      • Compass Turning Errors
      • Compass Acceleration Errors
        • Northerly Heading turns East or
          West
          • Compass Lags initially or a
            turn in the opposite direction
          • Turn to N, Under Shoot.
            Turn to South, Over Shoot
        • Southerly Heading turns East or West
          • Compass shows turn at a faster rate
          • Turn to N, Under Shoot.
            Turn to South, Over Shoot
        • East and West Heading Acceleration Error
          • ANDS (Accelerate North – Decelerate South)
    • Pitot-Static System
    • Airspeed Indicator
    • Altimeter
    • Types of Altitude
    • Setting the Altimeter
    • Altimeter Errors
    • Gyroscopic Instruments
    • Engine Temperature
    • Constant Speed Propeller
    • Engine Ignition System
    • Carburetor Icing
    • Carburetor Heat
    • Fuel-Air Mixture
    • Abnormal Combustion
    • Aviation Fuel Practices
    • Starting the Engine
    • Electrical System
  • Airports, Air Traffic Control, and Airspace

• 

  Cross Country # 2 Leg 1 – Robertson (4B8) to North
  Central (SFZ) – 63 miles

Coriolis Effect | National Geographic Society